PART: [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] [6] [index]

SECOND PART

6) Are they the Valencian and Catalan language the same language ?
 
 Not. The Valencian language and the Catalan one are two independent languages. It is consequence of having had differentiated origins and a different linguistic evolution throughout many centuries in different social-linguistic, political-cultural and geographical spaces for each language. Though it is evident that all the neo-Latin Iberic languages have high degrees of similarities and seemed among them.
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7) Do the Valencian language and the Catalan one belong to the same "linguistic system" ?
 
 Not, if the term: "linguistic system" is considered like synonymous of "idiom" or "language", because as it has been before said, the Valencian language and the Catalan language by origin and differentiated evolution are two different idioms.
 
 On the other hand, if the term: "linguistic system" takes the meaning of "a group of idioms or languages with some common features that can form a family", in this case the Valencian language would be inside a "neo-Latin linguistic system" formed by several iberic languages and occitanian ones (Castilian, Galician, Aragones, Gascon, etc...).
 
 Therefore, the response changes according to the meaning that could carry the term: "linguistic system", though in all the cases the Valencian language continues being a language independent from the Catalan language.
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8) Is it true that the Valencian language belongs to the "linguistic catalan system" ?
 
 It is false. The Valencian language does not belong to any "linguistic catalan system" because such a "linguistic catalan system" does not have real existence.
 This false "linguistic catalan system" was invented at the beginning of the XXth century by the pseudoscientific intellectuality of the Catalan nationalism, with the intention of giving independence and range of idiom to the Catalan language, since the Catalan language was considered to be a dialect of the Occitanian language and included in the "linguistic romanic-occitanian diasystem".
 In such a way that, the false "linguistic catalan system" has been constructed, out of any scientific rigor, truncating artificially the "linguistic romanic-occitanian diasystem", in the pretension of giving to the Catalan dialect a prevalence and protagonism that does not have, and with the last purpose of absorbing to the Valencian language inside the Catalan language in order to increase fallaciously the number of catalan speakers and in this way to give to the imperialistic project of the fictitious and non-existent "països catalans" ("catalan countries") a bigger political and social importance.
 
 Nowadays, the "linguistic romanic-occitanian diasystem" is a system formed by some languages with big similarities but that by origin and evolution they have developed enough differences to be considered different and independent languages each of others. Or saying it in other words, though the Valencian language could belong to the "linguistic romanic-occitanian diasystem" it has got enough differences to be a different, independent and autonomous language of the Catalan language.
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9) Is there between the Valencian language and the Catalan language what some people name as the "unit of the language" ?
 
 Not. As it has been before said, the Valencian language and the Catalan one are two independent languages by multiple social-linguistic factors and they cannot be artificially "unified" under the same spelling, grammar or syntax.
 
 Applying, by force, of the linguistic regulation of the Catalan language to the Valencian language would provoke the corruption and destruction of the genuine Valencian Language.
 The Valencian language has to have its own and genuine linguistic regulation, different of the regulation of the Catalan language. A false unit of the language constructed by force of imposing (for political and economic motives) the regulation of the Catalan language to the Valencian language is a huge linguistic aberration.
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10) Is it true that valencian people and catalan ones, each of them speaking in their own language, are understood perfectly among them and that it would demonstrate that they speak the same language ?
 
 Not. It is false. Nor the valencian people, to the first time, understand correctly to the catalan ones speaking in their own Catalan language, nor on the contrary.
 
 In the majority of cases the aptitude to understand other languages depends of cultural or personal factors of every person.
 What is a fact is that due to the great seemed that all the neo-Latin languages present among
them, it turns out relatively simple for many valencian ones to understand and to assimilate other Neo-Latin languages different from own, in spite of never having before studied them.
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